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Templarmason

is this a contradiction? No.

The simple answer is: No.

How did templars end up "being" masons?[]

The answer to this is two fold.

1) Templars when they were still a mighty order and immensly wealthy, they hired the stone mason, to do their many building projects for them. So in this period stone masons became a work forse used by the Templars and some of the stone masons might, after having been in contact with them so much and being impressed with their devotion, taken up the vow of becoming a templar themselfs. Hereby creating the first new blend of Stone mason-Templars (*).

2) After the fall of the Templars in 1312, the Templars had to go underground to stay out of the hands of philip the fair (called so for his self interest in looking beautiful.) So when the Templars went underground, numerous occult organizations tried to get their hands on the immense wealth that philip had failed to get in his possesion, and with this in mind tried to obsorb as many Templars as members into their occult organizations. Useing the Templars hunger for knowledge as bait to lure them in. The first and for most of these organizations, that had their first pick at them, was no less then their former work partners: the stone masons! This way many (but not all) Templars became Stone masons. (**)

So to say that all Templars are Stone masons is incorrect, just as much as stating that all stone masons are Templars! Some Templars may have become Stone masons, as much as some Stone mason may have become Templars. The one is not automaticly the other!

What is the difference?[]

(*) Stone mason-Templar = a Stone mason who has become a Templar (the combination less known to people. For what ever reason that might be; maybe because Stone mason-Templars were hunted down too by philip since they now were considered Templars by him?)

(**) Templar-Stone mason = a Templar who has become a Stone mason.

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